Explanation :

• According to Global Happiness Index 2024 The top 10 happiest countries around the world are Denmark, Iceland, Sweden, Israel, Netherlands, Norway, Luxembourg, Switzerland and Australia. According to the declared findings of this index – after countries like Libya, Iraq, Palestine and NigerIndia is at 126th position in this index like last year.
• In the Global Happiness Index 2024, India is ranked not at 134 but at 126 among 143 countries.Hence statement 1 is wrong.
• Finland is the happiest country in the world for the seventh consecutive year and ranks first in the Global Happiness Index 2024.Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The main theme of the Global Happiness Index 2024 -"Reconnecting for Happiness: Building Resilient Communities"Is.Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Afghanistan ranks lowest among 143 countries included in the Global Happiness Index 2024 and is not the happiest country in the world but the unhappiest country. Hence statement 4 is wrong.
• Thus, since Statement 2 and Statement 3 are correct, option D is the correct answer.

Explanation :

• In the context of bilateral and multidimensional relations between India and BhutanIndia is Bhutan's largest trading partner, accounting for not more than 50% but more than 80% of Bhutan's total imports and exports.Hence statement 1 is wrong.
• Official name of Bhutan Kingdom of Bhutan ‘ Which in Bhutanese language is Druk Gyal Khap’ ' is called, which means - ''Land of Thunder Dragon'. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• At present Bhutan is a democratic country, whose head is the Prime Minister of Bhutan, the statement is wrong because after the first democratic elections were held in Bhutan in the year 2008, at present Bhutan is a democratic country. Despite becoming a country with a democratic systemThe King of Bhutan is the head of state। Hence statement 3 is wrong.
• India's Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman in the interim budget 2024-25 Neighbourhood First’ Policy Bhutan has been provided the largest share of the economic assistance portfolio in line with. An allocation of Rs 2,068 crore has been made to Bhutan in the year 2024-25 as compared to the allocation of Rs 2,400 crore in the year 2023-24. Hence statement 4 is correct. Thus, since statements 2 and 4 are correct, so option B is the correct answer.

Explanation :

• The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with language, in which a total of 24 official languages ​​are mentioned. This statement is incorrect because the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with language which includes or mentions only 22 Indian languages/official languages ​​and not a total of 24.Hence statement 1 is wrong.
• Article 351 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Central Government to issue directions for the development of Hindi language.Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Inadequacy of teaching resources in India is also an important hindering aspect in implementing the three-language formula at the school level.Hence statement 3 is correct.
• There is no relation between language and culture because language and culture are contradictory to each other. This statement is wrong, because language and culture have a deep and complementary relationship because language and culture are not contradictory to each other but both are linked to the mutual identity of the people.Hence statement 4 is wrong.
• Thus, since statement 2 and statement 3 are correct, option D is the correct answer.

Explanation :

• In relation to the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Bill, 2023, the salary and service conditions of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners will be the same as that of the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.This statement 1 is wrong,Because according to the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Bill 2023, the salary and service conditions of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners are the same as that of the Cabinet Secretary.
• In this bill, the search committee will be chaired by the Prime Minister and will also include two members not below the rank of Cabinet Secretary.This statement 2 is also wrongBecause the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners of the Election Commission of India will be appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of the Selection Committee.
• This selection committee will have the leader of the opposition in the Lok Sabha as a member and if no party in the Lok Sabha has been recognized as the leader of the opposition, then the leader of the largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha will be included in it.
• The recommendations of the selection committee will be valid even if there is a vacancy in this committee.
• The Bill proposes to establish a Search Committee to prepare a panel of five persons/members to consider the posts of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners.
• The search committee will be headed by the Cabinet Secretary and will also include two members not below the rank of Secretary and who should have knowledge and experience of election related matters.Thus statement 2 is wrong.
• The Election Commission of India was established not on 25 May 1950 but on 25 January 1950. That is why On the 25th of January is celebrated as National voters day in India.  Hence statement 3 is wrong.
• The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Bill, 2023 replaces the Election Commission (Conditions of Service and Conduct of Business of Election Commissioners) Act, 1991.Hence statement 4 is correct.
• Thus option D is the correct answer.

Explanation :

• Due to retail inflation, when there is an imbalance between the demand and supply of food items in any economy, the prices of food items also start increasing. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The CFPI monitors price changes of specific food items that are commonly consumed by households. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• There are six types of CPI.Statement 3 is incorrect Because there are four types of Consumer Price Index (CPI), which are as follows -

1. CPI for Industrial Workers (IW)
   2. CPI for Agricultural Laborer (AL)
   3. CPI for Rural Laborer (RL)
   4.CPI for Rural/Urban/Combined or Urban Non-Manual Employees (UNME).

• Long-term changes in climate patterns do not affect agricultural products or food production, but rather lead to higher yields in the agricultural sector.Statement 4 is incorrect.Because long-term changes in climate patterns can impact agricultural products or food production. More severe and extreme weather events, such as drought or floods, can damage crops and reduce agricultural yields, which can also increase food prices.
• Thus, since Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct, option D is the correct answer.

Explanation :

• In India, the electoral bond scheme was introduced in the Parliament through the Finance Bill in the year 2017., Statement 1 is correct.
• The authorized issuing bank for electoral bonds in India is the Reserve Bank of India.Statement 2 is incorrect, because the authorized issuing bank for electoral bonds in India is not the Reserve Bank of India but the State Bank of India.
• In India, electoral bonds can be purchased through cash, digital medium, demand draft, TM and cheque.Statement 3 is wrong,  Because in India electoral bonds can be purchased only through digital medium or cheque.
• In India, electoral bonds issued by the State Bank of India are interest free and payable on demand by the holder., Statement 4 is correct.
• Thus, since Statement 1 and Statement 4 are correct, option D is the correct answer.

Explanation :

• The mascot of this sporting event in connection with Khelo India Youth Games- 2024 was – VeeraMangai. Statement 1 is correct.
• This sports competition was organized in Chennai, Mumbai, Madurai and Coimbatore. Statement 2 is wrong,Because Khelo India Youth Games – 2024 (KIYG-2024) was held in 4 cities of Tamil Nadu – Chennai, Trichy, Madurai and Coimbatore from January 19 to January 31, 2024.
• This fifth edition of Khelo India Youth Games – 2024 concluded on January 31, 2024 in Chennai.Statement 3 is wrong, Because not the fifth but the sixth edition of Khelo India Youth Games – 2024 concluded on January 31, 2024 in Chennai.
• In India, this sports competition is organized in four categories.Statement 4 is incorrect , because in India this sports competition is organized in two categories.
• School students below 17 years of age participate in the first category of this sports competition. Whereas
• The second category is conducted among college students under the age of 21.
• The sporting event is conducted in a team championship format, with the individual performances of athletes or the medals earned by their respective teams being recorded as a contribution to the overall medal tally of their respective state or union territory (UT). goes.
• Thus option D is the correct answer.

Explanation :

• EFTA is an intergovernmental organization which was established in 1990.Statement 1 is wrong,Because EFTA is an intergovernmental organization which was established not in 1990 but in 1960.
• The concept of free trade is the opposite of trade protectionism or economic isolationism.Statement 2 is correct,Because a free trade agreement is an agreement made between two or more countries to reduce barriers to import and export.
• Under a free trade policy, any goods and services can be bought and sold across international borders with little or no government customs duties or quotas or subsidies.
• The concept of free trade is the opposite of trade protectionism or economic isolationism.
• The President of India has approved the signing of TEPA with the EFTA countries. Statement 3 is wrong, Because the Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister of India has approved the signing of TEPA with EFTA countries.
• EFTA countries include Switzerland, Iceland, Norway and Liechtenstein. Statement 4 is correct, Because EFTA is an intergovernmental organization formed in 1960 to promote free trade and economic integration for the benefit of its four member countries, which include Switzerland, Iceland, Norway and Liechtenstein.
• Thus, since Statement 2 and Statement 4 are correct, option D is the correct answer.

Explanation :

• Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Bill, 2019 This law is applicable only in union states/territories.Statement 1 is wrong, Because the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Bill, 2019 was introduced in the Lok Sabha on July 8, 2019 by Home Minister Shri Amit Shah. The Bill makes the following amendments to the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967, with respect to the procedures for dealing with terrorist activities. Under this Act, the Central Government can declare any organization as a terrorist organization. if he-  
  
• If any person promotes terrorism.
• Otherwise he is involved in terrorist activity.
• He prepares to carry out a terrorist incident.

1. the person commits or participates in a terrorist act।

• This Bill also empowers the government to declare any person or persons as terrorists on similar grounds.
• The Act also prohibits the annexation of a part of Indian territory or the secession of a part of the territory of India from the Union. That is, if any person or organization or group of persons tries to occupy any part of India or tries to separate it from India, then legal action will be taken against him under the provisions of this Act. As -Demand for 'Khalistan' by Sikhs and formation of an organization called 'SIMI' by Muslims.
• Therefore, this law applies to all states, all regions and all union territories of India i.e. the entire country or all areas of India.
• The provisions of this Act apply to both Indian and foreign citizens.Statement 2 is correct, Because the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Bill, 2019 applies to everyone in the context of India.
• This bill gives the government the power to declare any person or persons as terrorists.Statement 3 is correct, Because Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Bill, 2019, under this Act the Central Government can declare any person or persons or any organization as a terrorist organization.
• Under this Act, an investigating officer is required to obtain the prior approval of the Director General of Police to seize properties linked to terrorism. Statement 4 is correct.
• Thus, since statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct, option D is the correct answer.

Explanation :

• In India, the Enforcement Directorate was established by the Central Government in 1996. Statement 1 is wrong, Because the Enforcement Directorate was established by the Central Government in India not in 1996 but in 1956.
• It is a special financial investigation agency under the Revenue Department of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India, whose headquarters is located in Kolkata.Statement 2 is wrong, Because it is a special financial investigation agency under the Revenue Department of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India, whose headquarters is not in Kolkata but in New Delhi.
• There are a total of 29 regional offices of the Enforcement Directorate in India. Statement 3 is incorrect because there are a total of 10 regional offices of the Enforcement Directorate in India. Each of these regional offices is headed by a Deputy Director and has 11 sub-regional offices, each of which is headed by an Assistant Director.
  Following are the names of the regional offices of Enforcement Directorate in India -

1. Mumbai
2. Delhi
3. 3.Chennai
4. Kolkata
5. Chandigarh
6. Lucknow
7. Cochin
8. Ahmedabad
9. Bangalore
10. Hyderabad

• The Enforcement Directorate in India has the power to attach or confiscate the property of those found guilty of violating FEMA. Statement 4 is correct, Because the Enforcement Directorate (ED) in India first collects intelligence regarding a case of violation under the 1999 laws of FEMA, and then shares it with the agencies concerned with that case in India. The Enforcement Directorate in India receives intelligence and secret information from complaints etc. through the intelligence agencies of the Center and the state concerned.
• The Enforcement Directorate in India has the power to attach or confiscate the property of those found guilty of violating FEMA.
• “Attachment of property” under Chapter III of the Money Laundering Act [Section 2 (1) (D)] means confiscation of property, includes transfer or conversion of property to another person and prohibition of sale of the said property; Is.
• Against those who violate this rule under the Money Laundering Act; It also includes carrying out search, seizure, arrest, and prosecution actions etc.
• To obtain legal extradition from the concerned states for the transfer of money laundering offenders under the Money Laundering Act and. Apart from this, completion of proceedings related to transfer of criminals is also included.
• The Enforcement Directorate (ED) in India is empowered to adjudicate cases of violation of the erstwhile FERA Act 1973 and subsequent FEMA, 1999 in India and decide the penalty imposed at the conclusion of the settlement proceedings.
• Thus option D is the correct answer.