24 Sep 2021 Weekly Current Affairs Quizzes: 13 Sep to 18 Sep 2021 Posted at 10:54h in Best IAS Coaching by Swarn kumar 0 Comments 0 Likes 6 1234567891011121314151617181920 Weekly Current Affairs Quizzes: 13 Sep to 18 Sep 2021 1 / 20 Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the Gwadar port: 1. Port is located in Iran. 2. It is being developed by India. 3. It is a deepwater seaport. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3 EXPLANATION: The Gwadar City Port CPEC or Gwadar Port Authority is situated on the Arabian Sea at Gwadar in Balochistan province of Pakistan and is under the administrative control of the Maritime Secretary of Pakistan and operational control of China Overseas Port Holding Company. The port features prominently in the China–Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) plan and is considered to be a link between the Belt and Road Initiative and the Maritime Silk Road projects. It is about 120 kilometers southwest of Turbat and 170 kilometers to the east of Chabahar Port. Thus, statement 1 is not correct. Gwadar's potential to be a deepwater seaport was first noted in 1954, while the city was still under Omani sovereignty. Plans for construction of the port were not realized until 2007, when the port was inaugurated by Pervez Musharraf after four years of construction, at a cost of $248 million. Thus, statement 2 is not correct and statement 3 is correct. 2 / 20 Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Supply Chain Resilience Initiative (SCRI):1. It will help a country to ensure that it has diversified its supply risk across a clutch of supplying nations.2. India is also a part of this initiative.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: Supply Chain Resilience: In the context of international trade, supply chain resilience is an approach that helps a country to ensure that it has diversified its supply risk across a clutch of supplying nations instead of being dependent on just one or a few. Thus, statement 1 is correct. The Covid-19 pandemic was having an unprecedented impact in terms of lives lost, livelihoods and economies affected, and that the pandemic had revealed supply chain vulnerabilities globally and in the region. Objectives: To attract foreign direct investment to turn the Indo-Pacific into an “economic powerhouse”. To build a mutually complementary relationship among partner countries. To work out a plan to build on the existential supply chain network. Japan and India, for example, have an India-Japan competitiveness partnership dealing with locating the Japanese companies in India. Thus, statement 2 is correct. 3 / 20 Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the Draft e-Commerce Rules 2021: 1. The registration for e-commerce entities with the Department of Promotion for Industry and Internal Trade is mandatory. 2. The entities will also have to identify goods based on their country of origin. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: Draft e-Commerce Rules 2021: Mandatory Registration: There is a need for mandatory registration for e-commerce entities with the Department of Promotion for Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Thus, statement 1 is correct. An E-commerce entity means persons who own, operate, or manage a digital or electronic facility or platform for electronic commerce. Limiting Flash Sales: Conventional e-commerce flash sales are not banned. Compliance Officer: The e-commerce sites are also directed to ensure the appointment of a Chief Compliance Officer (CCO) and a nodal contact person for 24x7 coordination with law enforcement agencies. Restricting Related Parties: To tackle growing concerns of preferential treatment, the new rules propose to ensure none of the related parties is allowed to use any consumer information (from the online platform) for ‘unfair advantage’. Clause of Country of Origin: The entities will also have to identify goods based on their country of origin and provide a filter mechanism at a pre-purchase stage for customers. Thus, statement 2 is correct. 4 / 20 Q4. Which of the following factors may have a negative effect on groundwater level:1. MSP2. Subsidies on electricity3. Hard rock structure4. AfforestationWhich of the statements given above are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 3 and 4 only D. All of the above EXPLANATION: Reasons for Groundwater Depletion: Increased demand for water for domestic, industrial, and agricultural needs and limited surface water resources. Limited storage facilities owing to the hard rock terrain, along with the added disadvantage of lack of rainfall, especially in central Indian states. Green Revolution enabled water-intensive crops to be grown in drought-prone/ water deficit regions, leading to over-extraction of groundwater. Frequent pumping of water from the ground without waiting for its replenishment leads to quick depletion. Subsidies on electricity and high MSP (Minimum Support Price) for water-intensive crops. Water contamination as in the case of pollution by landfills, septic tanks, leaky underground gas tanks, and overuse of fertilizers and pesticides leading to damage and depletion of groundwater resources. Inadequate regulation of groundwater encourages the exhaustion of groundwater resources without any penalty. Deforestation, unscientific methods of agriculture, chemical effluents from industries, lack of sanitation also lead to pollution of groundwater, making it unusable. Thus, option (b) is correct. 5 / 20 Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the species of crocodile:1. Odisha's Kendrapara district has earned the distinction of being the only district in India where all three species of crocodiles, are found.2. Salt-water crocodile, gharial and mugger, all species are included under the vulnerable category.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: Odisha's Kendrapara district has earned the distinction of being the only district in India where all three species of crocodiles, salt-water, gharial and mugger, are found. Thus, statement 1 is correct. A mugger or Marsh Crocodile: Description: An egg-laying and hole-nesting species, also known to be dangerous. Habitat: Mainly restricted to the Indian subcontinent where it may be found in a number of freshwater habitat types and also in coastal saltwater lagoons and estuaries. It is already extinct in Bhutan and Myanmar. Protection Status: IUCN List of Threatened Species: Vulnerable CITES: Appendix I Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I Salt-water crocodile, gharial, and mugger species are under different categories. Thus, statement 2 is not correct. 6 / 20 Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the PISA (Program for International Student Assessment):1. It is a competency-based test designed to assess the ability of 15-year-old candidates.2. India participates in the PISA test every year and is generally ranked among the top 10 countries.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: The field trial of PISA (Program for International Student Assessment) is scheduled to be held from September, 2021. It is a competency-based test designed to assess the ability of the 15-year-old candidates that measures their reading, mathematics, and science literacy every three years to apply their knowledge to real-life situations. Thus, statement 1 is correct. It is an international survey coordinated by the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) and was first conducted in 2000. India has participated in the PISA test only once before, in 2009. In this round of PISA, where students from Himachal Pradesh and Tamil Nadu sat for the test, India ranked 72nd out of 73 countries, outranking only Kyrgyzstan. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect. Since then, India has strayed away from the test until now, for students from Chandigarh will be sitting for the test in 2022. 7 / 20 Q7. Consider the following statements regarding the World Heritage Institute of Training and Research – Asia Pacific (WHITR-AP): 1. The WHITR-AP is a non-profit organization specialized in the area of heritage conservation. 2. It is an institute under the auspices of UNESCO. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: The WHITR-AP is a non-profit organization specialized in the area of heritage conservation. Thus, statement 1 is correct. It is an institute under the auspices of UNESCO, it is the first one established in developing countries. Thus, statement 2 is correct. It is an autonomous institution at the service of member states and associate members of UNESCO. Mission: To strengthen implementation of the World Heritage Convention 1972 in Asia and the Pacific region. World Heritage Convention: It is one of the most important global conservation instruments which was created in 1972. Its mission is to identify and protect the world's natural and cultural heritage considered to be of Outstanding Universal Value. It sets out the duties of States Parties in identifying potential sites and their role in protecting and preserving them. By signing the convention, each country pledges to conserve not only the World Heritage sites situated on its territory, but also to protect its national heritage. 8 / 20 Q8. Who among the following emulated Gandhi's non-violence to spearhead Vaikom Satyagraha? A. C. Rajagopalachari B. K. Kamaraj C. Rani Velu Nachiyar D. T. K. Madhavan EXPLANATION: T. K. Madhavan was an Indian social reformer, journalist and revolutionary who was involved with the Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana (SNDP). He came from Kerala and led the struggle against untouchability which was known as Vaikom Satyagraha. He persuaded Gandhi to move to Vaikom and fight for the rights of backward classes in Kerala. He wanted to eliminate untouchability and get walking rights on temple streets for the lower classes. After the intervention of Mahatma Gandhi, the agitation was given up and a compromise reached Regent Sethu Lakshmi Bayi released all those arrested and opened the north, south, and west public roads leading to Vaikom Mahadeva Temple to all castes. She refused to open the eastern road. It was only in 1936 after the Temple Entry Proclamation was access to the eastern road and entry into the temple was allowed to lower castes. Thus, option (d) is correct. 9 / 20 Q9. Read the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana: 1. It aims to consolidate the gains of the Blue revolution. 2. It involves a “Swath Sagar” plan for the modernization of fisheries. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMSSY) is a flagship scheme for focused and sustainable development of the fisheries sector in the country with an estimated investment of Rs. 20,050 crores for its implementation during a period of 5 years from FY 2020-21 to FY 2024-25 in all States/Union Territories, as a part of the Atma Nirbhar Bharat Package. The scheme is to bring about the Blue Revolution through sustainable and responsible development of the fisheries sector in India. Thus, statement 1 is correct. Besides creating critical fisheries infrastructure by attracting private investments in the fisheries sector, the scheme plans to reduce post-harvest losses from the present high of 25% to about 10% by modernizing and strengthening the value chain. Under the Swath Sagar plan, activities envisaged with a view to modernizing the fisheries sector include promotion of Bio-toilets, Insurance coverage for fishing vessels, Fisheries Management Plans, E-Trading/Marketing, Fishers, and resources survey, and creation of National IT-based databases. Thus, statement 2 is correct. 10 / 20 Q10. India’s first labour museum has been opened in which one of the following States? A. Karnataka B. West Bengal C. Punjab D. Kerala EXPLANATION: Recently, the Government of Kerala has announced the opening of the Labour Movement Museum in Alappuzha, the first of its kind in India. Thus, option (d) is the correct answer. The museum will display the history of the world labour movement and the labour movement of Kerala through paintings, documents, and other exhibits. Alappuzha of Kerala is world-famous as a global houseboat tourist center. The state tourism department said, "New Model Cooperative Society Ltd." formerly run by Bombay Company will be converted into "Labour Movement Museum". It will portray, through paintings, documents, and other exhibits, the growth of the world labour movement and the history of the labour movement of Kerala. 11 / 20 Q11. Read the following statements: 1. Kumbhabhishekam has been recently held as a consecration ceremony at Brihadeshwara temple. 2. Brihadeshwara temple was built by Harihara I and Bukka I. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: Kumbhabhishekam, also known as Samprokshanam is a Hindu temple ritual that is believed to homogenize, synergize and unite the mystic powers of the deity. It is part of the consecration ceremony of Hindu temples. Kumbha means the Head and denotes the Shikhara or Crown of the Temple (usually in the gopuram) and abhishekam or prokshanam is ritual bathing. Kumbhabhishekam is widely celebrated as a festival in South India. Thus, statement 1 is correct. Brihadishwara temple or Rajarajeswaram, is a Hindu temple dedicated to Shiva located on the South bank of the Cauvery river in Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu, India. It was built by Tamil king Raja Raja Chola I between 1003 and 1010 AD, the temple is a part of the UNESCO World Heritage Site known as the "Great Living Chola Temples". The Vijayanagara Empire, also called the Karnata Kingdom, was established in 1336 by the brothers Harihara I and Bukka Raya I. Thus, statement 2 is not correct. 12 / 20 Q12. Program for the promotion of bee culture called “apiary on wheels” has recently been flagged by which of the following ministry? A. Ministry of Agriculture B. Ministry of Rural development C. Ministry of MSMEs D. Ministry of commerce EXPLANATION: ‘Apiary on Wheels’, a unique concept designed by KVIC for the easy upkeep and migration of Bee Boxes having live Bee colonies, was flagged off today by the Union Minister of MSME Shri Nitin Gadkari in Delhi, in the presence of Shri V. K. Saxena, Chairman KVIC. Thus, option (c) is correct. Beekeeping looks easy but has many intricate difficulties which only a beekeeper would understand. Apiary on wheels will make the migration easy, the maintenance easy, easy feeding of bees and it will also help the bees to sustain even in extreme summers. Apiary on wheels is a holistic approach to address the challenges faced by the beekeepers. It is designed so as to reduce the labour and cost of maintaining and upkeeping Bee Boxes and live bee colonies across India. This is an example of ‘out of the box thinking’ which KVIC has adopted to benefit the maximum number of people in India and help generate livelihood at the doorsteps. 13 / 20 Q13. Consider the following statements regarding the Essential Commodities Act: 1. It ensures the delivery of certain commodities or products, the supply of which if obstructed owing to hoarding or black marketing. 2. The states can include new commodities as and when the need arises. 3. The central government can take such commodities off the list once the situation improves. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 EXPLANATION: The Essential Commodities Act is an act of Parliament of India that was established to ensure the delivery of certain commodities or products, the supply of which if obstructed owing to hoarding or black marketing would affect the normal life of the people. Thus, statement 1 is correct. Additionally, the government can also fix the maximum retail price (MRP) of any packaged product that it declares an “essential commodity”. The Centre can include new commodities as and when the need arises, and take them off the list once the situation improves. Thus, statement 2 is not correct and statement 3 is correct. The act empowers Central and State Governments concurrently to control the production, supply, and distribution of certain commodities in view of rising pricing. 14 / 20 Q14. Consider the following statements regarding Guillain Barre Syndrome (GBS):1. GBS is a rare autoimmune disorder.2. It is caused by bacteria or viral infection.3. It attacks the peripheral nervous system.Which of the above statements are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 EXPLANATION: In a rare complication, some patients infected with Covid-19 were found suffering from Guillain Barre Syndrome (GBS). It is a very rare autoimmune disorder. Thus, statement 1 is correct. GBS is caused by bacteria or viral infection. Thus, statement 2 is correct. The immune system, in an attempt to kill the coronavirus, accidentally starts attacking the peripheral nervous system. The peripheral nervous system is a network of nerves that lead from the brain and spinal cord to different parts of the body. Attacking them can affect limb functions. Thus, statement 3 is correct. The syndrome’s first symptoms are a tingling or itching sensation in the skin, followed by muscle weakness, pain and numbness. 15 / 20 Q15. Consider the following statements regarding Aluminium-air batteries:1. Aluminium-air batteries utilise oxygen in the air to produce electricity.2. It is cost effective and more energy-dense alternative to lithium-ion batteries.3. The time taken to recharge Aluminium-air batteries is less compared to lithium-ion batteries.Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 3 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 only EXPLANATION: Aluminium-air batteries utilise oxygen in the air which reacts with an aluminium hydroxide solution to oxidise the aluminium and produce electricity. Thus, statement 1 is correct. Lower cost and more energy-dense alternative to lithium-ion batteries which are currently in widespread use for electric vehicles in India. Thus, statement 2 is correct. Offer much greater range of 400 km or more per battery compared to lithium-ion batteries which currently offer a range of 150-200 kilometres per full charge. The aluminium plate in an aluminium-air battery is converted into aluminium trihydroxide over time and that aluminium can be reclaimed from aluminium trihydroxide or even traded directly for industrial uses. Aluminium-air batteries cannot be recharged like lithium-ion batteries. They take more time to recharge. Thus, statement 3 is not correct. Therefore, large scale use of aluminium-air battery-based vehicles would require the wide availability of battery swapping stations. 16 / 20 Q16. NASA and ISRO are collaborating on developing a satellite called NISAR. It will be used to_1. Measure Earth’s changing ecosystems and ice masses.2. Provide information about sea-level rise and groundwater.3. Detect movements of the Earth’s surface.Select the correct answer using the codes given below: A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 EXPLANATION: The NASA-ISRO SAR (NISAR) Mission will measure Earth’s changing ecosystems, dynamic surfaces, and ice masses providing information about biomass, natural hazards, sea level rise, and groundwater. Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct. It will scan the globe every 12 days over the course of its three-year mission of imaging the Earth’s land, ice sheets and sea ice to give an “unprecedented” view of the planet. It will detect movements of the planet’s surface as small as 0.4 inches over areas about half the size of a tennis court. Thus, statement 3 is correct. 17 / 20 Q17. Consider the following statements regarding Marburg virus: 1. It is a highly infectious hemorrhagic fever similar to Ebola. 2. Human infection initially results from prolonged exposure to mines/ caves inhabited by Rousettus bat colonies. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: Guinea Records West Africa’s First Marburg Virus Case: It is the first time that the deadly disease has been identified in West Africa. There have been 12 major Marburg outbreaks since 1967, mostly in southern and eastern Africa. About Marburg virus: It is a highly infectious hemorrhagic fever similar to Ebola. Thus, statement 1 is correct. Fatality rates have varied from 24% to 88% depending on virus strain and case management. Causes: Human infection initially results from prolonged exposure to mines/ caves inhabited by Rousettus bat colonies. Thus, statement 2 is correct. Transmission: It is transmitted to people from fruit bats. It can spread through human-to-human transmission via infected body fluids and tissue. Treatment: There are no approved vaccines or antiviral treatments for the virus. 18 / 20 Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the West Nile Virus (WNV): 1. It generally spreads to humans from the consumption of meat products. 2. The disease caused by WNV is spread by infected mosquitoes. 3. The WNV can lead to a fatal neurological disease in humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1 and 3 only EXPLANATION: West Nile virus generally spreads to humans and animals from bites of infected mosquitoes. Mosquitoes get infected and carry the virus after biting infected birds. Thus, statement 1 is not correct. Most West Nile virus infections happen during warm weather, when mosquitoes are active. The WNV can lead to a fatal neurological disease in humans. Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct. The incubation period — the period between when you're bitten by an infected mosquito and the appearance of signs and symptoms of the illness — generally ranges from four to 10 days. West Nile virus has appeared in Africa, Asia, Europe and the Middle East. It appeared in the United States in the summer of 1999, and since then has been reported in every state — except Hawaii and Alaska — as well as in Canada. 19 / 20 Q19. Consider the following pairs: Convention Purpose:1. Minamata Convention : Restricting use of chemical weapons2. Basel Convention : Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes3. Rotterdam Convention : Restricting use of Mercury4. Stockholm Convention : Controlling Persistent Organic PollutantsWhich of the pairs given above are correctly matched? A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 3 and 4 only C. 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 EXPLANATION: The Minamata Convention on Mercury is an international treaty designed to protect human health and the environment from anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds. Thus, pair 1 is not correctly matched. The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal was adopted on 22 March 1989 by the Conference of Plenipotentiaries in Basel, Switzerland. Thus, pair 2 is correctly matched. The Rotterdam Convention (formally, the Rotterdam Convention on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade) is a multilateral treaty to promote shared responsibilities in relation to importation of hazardous chemicals. Thus, pair 3 is not correctly matched. The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from chemicals that remain intact in the environment. Thus, pair 4 is correctly matched. 20 / 20 Q20. Consider the following statements: 1. A ballistic missile is a rocket-propelled self-guided strategic weapons system. 2. India is a signatory to the Hague Code of Conduct against Ballistic Missile Proliferation (HCOC). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 EXPLANATION: A ballistic missile follows a ballistic trajectory to deliver one or more warheads on a predetermined target. A ballistic trajectory is the path of an object that is launched but has no active propulsion during its actual flight (these weapons are guided only during relatively brief periods of flight). Consequently, the trajectory is fully determined by a given initial velocity, effects of gravity, air resistance, and motion of the earth (Coriolis Force). Thus, statement 1 is not correct. Since the signing and entering into force of the HCOC Code in November 2002 in the Hague, (Netherlands) the number of signatories has increased from 96 to 138 (136 UN members, the Cook Islands, and the Holy See). India, which joined on 1 June 2016, is the latest signatory of the HCOC. Thus, statement 2 is not correct. NameEmailPhone Number Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte Swarn kumar
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