Weekly Current Affairs: Quizzes, 24 to 29 July, 2023

EXPLANATION: 

The  Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC) was formally launched in 2000 at Vientiane, Lao PDR, with the aim of establishing stronger ties between the people living in the regions surrounding the Mekong and Ganga rivers, both of which are civilizational rivers and hold significant cultural and historical importance. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 

• The Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC) represents a collaborative effort among six nations, including India and five ASEAN countries, namely Cambodia, Lao PDR, Myanmar, Thailand, and Vietnam. Thus, statement 2 is not correct. 
• This initiative focuses on fostering cooperation in various fields such as tourism, culture, education, transport, and communications. 
• Throughout history, the MGC stands as evidence of the enduring cultural and commercial connections among its member countries. To facilitate effective coordination, MGC meetings are held annually, co-chaired alternately by India and one of the five Mekong countries.
• The Mekong River, recognized as one of the world's magnificent waterways, flows through six nations: China, Myanmar, Thailand, Lao People’s Democratic Republic, Cambodia, and Vietnam. Originating in the Himalayas of China, where it is known as the Lancang River, it courses through the Lower Mekong Basin before eventually reaching the South China Sea. Thus, statement 3 is not correct. 
• On the other hand, the Ganga River is equally significant, meandering through two countries, India and Bangladesh. Originating in the Himalayas of India, the Ganga traverses the Gangetic Plain before finally emptying into the Bay of Bengal.

EXPLANATION: 

Recent reports indicate that CCHF is spreading northward and westward in Europe, leading to fatalities in several countries. India has also reported cases of CCHF, with the state of Gujarat being significantly affected.

About Crimean-Congo Haemorrhagic Fever (CCHF)

• Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever (CCHF) is a viral haemorrhagic fever primarily transmitted by ticks, with a high fatality rate. Thus, statement 1 is not correct. 

• CCHF was first identified among soldiers in the Crimean Peninsula in 1944, while a similar ailment discovered in the Congo Basin in 1969 was found to be caused by the same pathogen, leading to the naming of the disease as Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever.

Transmission and Hosts:

• The CCHF virus is predominantly transmitted by ticks and can be contracted through contact with viraemic animal tissues during or shortly after animal slaughter. 
• Animals like cattle, goats, sheep, and hares serve as amplifying hosts for the virus. 

• Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever (CCHF) is a zoonotic disease. This means that it can be transmitted from animals to humans. Thus, statement 2 is correct. 

• Human transmission occurs through contact with infected ticks or animal blood, and it is also possible for the virus to spread from one infected human to another through contact with infectious blood or body fluids, such as sweat and saliva. 
• Migratory birds can host the ticks, contributing to the long-distance spread of the virus.

Symptoms and Management:

• CCHF symptoms include fever, muscle ache, dizziness, neck pain, backache, headache, sore eyes, and light sensitivity. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and sore throat may also be experienced early on, followed by mood swings and confusion. As the infection progresses, symptoms can escalate to sleepiness, depression, and lassitude.
• There is currently no vaccine available for CCHF in humans or animals. Thus, statement 3 is correct
• Treatment primarily focuses on managing the symptoms, but the antiviral drug ribavirin has shown some apparent benefit in treating CCHF infection.

The World Health Organization (WHO) has raised concerns about the spread of this infection, which is endemic to several regions, including Africa, the Balkan countries, the Middle East, and parts of Asia.

EXPLANATION: 

The Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI) scheme is a government-led initiative aimed at increasing the mangrove cover along the coastline and on salt pan lands. The MISHTI scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

• The objective of the scheme is to conserve and restore the mangrove ecosystem, which is critical to mitigating the effects of climate change, preventing coastal erosion, and sustaining local livelihoods. Thus, statement 1 is correct. 
• The scheme is primarily focused on the Sundarbans delta, Hooghly Estuary in West Bengal, India and other bay parts of the country, but also includes other wetlands in the country. Thus, statement 2 is not correct. 
• Under the MISHTI scheme, the government is providing financial assistance to local communities to undertake mangrove plantation activities. 
• The scheme also involves awareness campaigns to educate people about the importance of mangroves and their role in protecting the environment. 
• The plantation activities are carried out in a participatory manner, involving local communities and NGOs, to ensure sustainability and community ownership of the initiative. 
• This program is also envisaged to develop mangrove associated ecotourism initiatives and livelihood generation in coastal states. 
• MISHTI will be implemented through convergence between the MGNREGS (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme), CAMPA (Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority) Fund and other sources
• MISHTI will contribute to the efforts of ‘Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC)’ – an intergovernmental alliance for promotion of Mangrove, of which India became its active member during the (COP27). 

• Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC)

• • The Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC) was introduced during the 27th session of the Conference of Parties (COP27) UN climate summit, and India became one of its partners.
  • Led by the United Arab Emirates (UAE) and Indonesia, MAC comprises India, Sri Lanka, Australia, Japan, and Spain. Thus, statement 3 is not correct. 
  • The primary objective of MAC is to raise global awareness and educate people about the crucial role of mangroves in mitigating global warming and their potential as a solution to address climate change.

EXPLANATION: 

Steel slag road technology refers to the approach of using processed steel slag, an industrial waste material generated during steel production, as an alternative to traditional natural aggregates in road construction. It involves converting the molten flux material from steel furnaces into stable steel slag aggregates with improved material properties suitable for road construction.

• This technology facilitates the large-scale utilization of waste steel slag of steel plants and has proved very useful in effective disposal of about 19 million tonnes of steel slag generated in the country. 
• The technology has been developed by the Central Road Research Institute under a research project in collaboration with the Ministry of Steel and four major steel manufacturing companies of the country.  
• This technique has been successfully tested in road construction in four major states of the country including Gujarat, Jharkhand, Maharashtra and Arunachal Pradesh

Advantages of Steel slag road technology

• Reduced Thickness: Steel slag roads require 30% less thickness, thanks to their superior material characteristics, resulting in cost savings and efficient resource utilization. Thus, statement 1 is not correct.
• Sustainable Waste Utilization: Implementing steel slag in road construction promotes the sustainable use of waste materials, reducing reliance on natural aggregates and minimizing environmental impact.
• Lower Carbon Footprint: Steel slag roads have a considerably lower carbon footprint compared to roads made with natural aggregates, as they involve waste conversion without additional extraction processes, reducing overall pollution. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
• Cost-Effective and Durable: The construction cost of processed steel slag roads is significantly lower than that of bitumen and concrete roads. Moreover, they offer a lifespan of approximately 15 years, making them a cost-effective and long-lasting road construction option. Thus, statement 3 is correct.

The steel slag road surface experiences a minor increase in temperature (around 1-2 degrees Celsius) during mid-afternoon compared to regular roads. However, this temperature variation does not adversely affect the road's performance. The utilization of bitumen layers in the upper surface helps mitigate potential issues.Thus, statement 4 is not correct.

EXPLANATION: 

The DPT vaccine is a trivalent combination of immunizations safeguarding against three distinct diseases: diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis (whooping cough).

Diphtheria:

• Diphtheria is an infectious disease resulting from the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Thus, statement 1 is not correct.

• Transmission typically occurs through direct person-to-person contact, respiratory droplets, or exposure to contaminated surfaces.
• The toxin produced by the bacterium can damage the heart, nerves, and other organs, making diphtheria potentially fatal, especially in young children. 

Tetanus (lockjaw):

• Tetanus is an infection caused by the bacterium Clostridium tetani that lives in soil and dust. Thus, statement 2 is correct.

• When these bacteria enter the body, they produce a toxin that leads to painful muscle contractions. It can also cause muscle spasms in the chest, back, and abdomen, making it difficult to breathe. .

Pertussis:

• Pertussis, commonly referred to as whooping cough, is a respiratory tract infection resulting from the bacteria Bordetella pertussis. It manifests with a persistent and severe cough lasting for several weeks.
• Pertussis can be particularly dangerous for infants and young children, who may develop pneumonia or other complications as a result of the infection.

• In adults, pertussis is often milder than in children, but it can still cause serious complications, such as pneumonia, seizures, and death. Thus, statement 3 is not correct.

DPT is one of the 12 vaccine-preventable diseases that are covered by India’s Universal Immunization Programme (UIP), which provides free vaccinations.

EXPLANATION:

Short Duration Discussion

• A Short Duration Discussion, governed by Rule 193 in Lok Sabha and Rule 176 in Rajya Sabha, is a parliamentary device enabling MPs to address urgent matters of public importance for a brief period. 
• It focuses on time-sensitive and nationally significant issues that demand immediate attention. The MP must provide notice to the Speaker, outlining the matter to be raised and the reasons. 
• During the discussion, other MPs participate, but the one who initiated it has no right to reply. 
• The Minister-in-charge responds at the discussion's conclusion. 
• Unlike regular discussions, no formal motion is introduced, and no voting occurs. 
• The Speaker of Lok Sabha holds the authority to determine if an issue qualifies for a Short Duration Discussion under Rule 193.

• The Chairman may allow such time not exceeding two and a half hours for holding such discussion. Thus, pair 1 is correctly matched. 

Rule 184-  Discussion on matters of public interest.

• Rule 184 is a parliamentary procedure in Lok Sabha where MPs can bring up significant issues through a motion that involves voting. 
• It is similar to Rule 193, with the exception that the matter is raised in the form of a motion, and after the Minister's reply, the House votes on it. 
• For a motion under Rule 184, MPs must give prior notice to the Speaker, clearly stating the issue they want to address. 
• The Speaker has the discretion to allow such matters to be raised. 
• During the debate, members vote either in favor or against the motion, and if passed, the government must adhere to Parliament's decision on the issue. Thus, pair 2 is not correctly matched. 

Adjournment motion

• An adjournment motion is a specific type of motion moved in the House to discuss a definite matter of urgent public importance, with the consent of the Speaker. 
• In the Rajya Sabha, the Rule Book does not include provisions for an adjournment motion. However, MPs in the Rajya Sabha have utilized Rule 267 over time to suspend the pre-decided agenda and address urgent matters. Thus, pair 3 is correctly matched. 
• To propose an adjournment motion, notice must be given before 10 am on the day of its presentation. If accepted, the House adjourns after voting on the motion. 
• The adoption of an adjournment motion is often regarded as a censure of the government, although it does not necessarily compel the government to resign.

No Confidence Motion

• A No Confidence Motion can be moved against the Council of Ministers.
• Notice for the motion must be given before 10 am on the sitting day.
• It is initiated by an MP who believes that the government's actions have been unsatisfactory and demands the government's resignation.

• The Speaker will ask supporting MPs to rise to their seats, and if at least 50 MPs do so, a time for the motion will be scheduled. Thus, pair 4 is not correctly matched. 

• The motion is voted on at the end of the debate. If adopted, the government must resign.

EXPLANATION:

The third edition of the Export Preparedness Index (EPI) 2022 was released by NITI Aayog, in collaboration with the Institute for Competitiveness. Thus, statement 1 is not correct.

• The report aims to evaluate and enhance India's export potential, promoting States and districts as export hubs. 
• It provides region-specific insights to assist State governments in decision-making, identifying strengths, addressing weaknesses, and fostering comprehensive growth across States and Union Territories (UTs) of India.

• The report categorizes the states into– Coastal States, Landlocked states, Himalayan states and Union territory/ Small states. Thus, statement 2 is not correct.

• The report evaluates the export preparedness of States and UTs based on four pillars:
  • Policy: Assessing the adoption of export-related policies and the institutional framework at both state and district levels.
  • Business Ecosystem: Analyzing the business environment, supportive infrastructure, and transport connectivity within a state/UT.
  • Export Ecosystem: Focusing on export-related infrastructure, trade support for exporters, and Research and Development (R&D) initiatives.
  • Export Performance: Gauging a state's export growth, concentration, and global market footprint.
• Coastal states, particularly Tamil Nadu (1st), Maharashtra (2nd), Karnataka, and Gujarat, emerged as the top-performers in the Export Preparedness Index. Thus, statement 3 is not correct.
• Other Reports and Indices by NITI Aayog: National Multidimensional Poverty Index, India Innovation Index, State Energy & Climate Index, Healthy States, Progressive India: Health Index

EXPLANATION: Sriharikota, located on the eastern coast of India, was selected as an ideal site for satellite launches due to several advantageous factors. Thus, Statement-I is correct. 

Proximity to the Equator:

• Sriharikota's location close to the equator allows launch vehicles to take advantage of the Earth's rotation. 
• Launching rockets eastwards harnesses Earth's rotational speed, imparting a velocity of approximately 450 m/s to the payload. 

• This extra velocity significantly increases the payload capacity for geostationary satellites, which must be positioned in the equatorial plane for their operational requirements. Thus, Statement-II is not correct. 

Stable Geographical Platform:

• A successful rocket launch requires a solid and stable ground to withstand the intense vibrations during liftoff. 
• Sriharikota meets this requirement with its strong soil composition and hard rock beneath the surface. 
• This stability ensures the safety of the launch vehicle and its payload during the critical phases of launch.

Strategic Location Near the Sea:

• In the event of a rocket deviation or failure, safety measures are crucial to prevent damage to inhabited areas. 
• The destruct command is used to deliberately destroy a malfunctioning rocket, causing it to disintegrate and fall into a designated area. 
• Situating the launch site near the sea, as in the case of Sriharikota, provides a safe landing zone for such incidents. 
• The surrounding Bay of Bengal and Pulicat lake offer an ideal location for this purpose, reducing the risk to human settlements.

EXPLANATION: 

The Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP), also known as TPP11 or TPP-11, is a trade agreement among 11 countries, namely Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Peru, Singapore, and Vietnam. 

• It originated from the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP), which failed to be ratified after the United States' withdrawal. 
• Together, the eleven member countries represent approximately 13.4 percent of the global GDP, amounting to around US$13.5 trillion. This makes the CPTPP one of the world's largest free-trade areas by GDP, alongside the United States–Mexico–Canada Agreement, the European single market, and the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership.
• In July 2023, the UK formally agreed to join the Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP). The UK will be the first new member since the bloc was established in 2018 and the first European member. Thus, option (d) is correct. 
• According to UK Government CPTPP membership will bring benefits, including lower trade barriers to a dynamic region expected to become increasingly significant in the global economy. The Government expects the agreement to come into force in the second half of 2024.

EXPLANATION:

Rudragiri Caves:

• Rudragiri Caves, situated in the village of Orvakallu, Guntur district, Andhra Pradesh, are located on the Rudragiri hillock. Thus, pair 1 is not correctly matched. 
• These shelters served as living quarters for people during the Mesolithic age around 5000 B.C., and they are adorned with fascinating rock paintings from that era. 
• Additionally, at the southern end of the hillock, two natural caves showcase remarkable murals from the renowned Kakatiya kingdom.
• The Kakatiya-era Ramayana fresco on the Rudragiri hillock is a unique work of art. It depicts the Vanara brothers Vali and Sugriva engaged in a fierce battle. However, the fresco has faded over time, and some of its prominent features are no longer visible.

Udayagiri Caves: 

• The Udayagiri caves, located in Vidisha, Madhya Pradesh, house some of the oldest Hindu temples and iconography, associated with Vaishnavism, Shaivism, and Shaktism. Thus, pair 2 is correctly matched. 
• Constructed during the Gupta period (350-550 CE), these caves are situated north of the Tropic of Cancer. Interestingly, historical records suggest that during the summer solstice, the sun was directly overhead at this location, earning it the name "Udayagiri" or "Mount of sunrise," which subsequently became a place of worship.
• The caves also contain significant Gupta age inscriptions. Notably, the site features an iconic Varaha sculpture rescuing the earth, symbolically represented by Bhudevi holding onto the boar's tusk, as described in Hindu mythology.
• In India, there are several places with the same name, and among the most prominent ones are Udayagiri mountain in Rajgir, Bihar, and the Udayagiri and Khandagiri Caves in Odisha.

Saptaparni Cave

• Saptaparni Cave is a significant Buddhist site located about 2 kilometers (1.2 mi) southwest of Rajgir, Bihar. Thus, pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Situated within a hill, this cave holds great importance in the Buddhist tradition. 
• It is believed to be the place where Buddha spent some time before his death and where the first Buddhist council was convened after his passing (parinirvana).

EXPLANATION:

Bacteriophages, or phages, are viruses that infect only bacterial cells. They are abundant and diverse in size and structure. 

• When a bacteriophage encounters a susceptible bacterium, it attaches to the bacterial cell wall using specialized receptor proteins. Once attached, the bacteriophage injects its genetic material into the bacterium. This genetic material takes over the bacterial cellular machinery, redirecting it to produce more phage components. These components eventually assemble into new phage particles within the bacterial host. Thus, option (b) is correct. 
• Despite their inability to infect and replicate within human cells, bacteriophages play a significant role in the human microbiome, serving as essential facilitators of genetic exchange between pathogenic and non-pathogenic bacteria.
• Bacteriophages can also control microbial populations by preying on specific bacteria without harming others. Researchers have explored using phages to treat bacterial infections, but challenges exist, like bacterial diversity and resistance.
• Phages are more immunogenic than antimicrobial drugs and are quickly cleared from the blood. 

Clinical Uses of Phages:

• Phages’ presence can be used as a biomarker for the presence of their host bacteria in complex environmental samples, such as in detecting fecal contamination in water sources.
• Phages can be engineered to introduce genes into specific bacteria for clinical purposes, although this is still being tested.
• Phages have been used to distinguish different strains of the same bacterial species. Each strain may be resistant or susceptible to different phages, allowing for strain identification.
• Bacteriophages were crucial in early discoveries of molecular biology, such as proving DNA’s role in genetic transmission, understanding gene regulation, and revealing the genetic code.

EXPLANATION:

• Ludwigia Peruviana, commonly known as primrose willow, is a fast-growing aquatic plant native to Central and South America. Originally introduced to India as an ornamental plant, it has now become invasive.
• Thriving in swamps and wet areas, Ludwigia Peruviana often takes over the foraging grounds of elephants and gaurs. Thus, option (c) is correct.
• Its rapid and dense growth displaces native vegetation, diminishing the availability of food and water for these magnificent creatures. Moreover, the plant's toxicity poses a further threat, potentially leading to starvation among elephants and gaurs who consume it.
• The invasion of Ludwigia Peruviana has disrupted the balance of these essential foraging grounds, restricting the growth of palatable grass and native plants for elephants and other animals, including gaurs. 
• Managing Ludwigia Peruviana proves challenging due to its swamp habitat, making it impractical to use machinery that could harm the delicate ecosystem. Even manual removal is problematic, as the soft plant easily breaks and regrows from the roots or broken stems that fall in the swamp, perpetuating its spread.
• Japanese knotweed (Fallopia japonica) is a fast-growing, herbaceous perennial that is native to East Asia. It was introduced to North America in the 1800s as an ornamental plant, but it has since become an invasive species. Japanese knotweed can grow up to 10 feet tall and spread rapidly by rhizomes. It can displace native vegetation and damage infrastructure.
• Senna spectabilis (also known as cassia spectabilis) is a tree that is native to tropical areas of America which can grow up to 15 meters tall. The tree has yellow flowers and is often used as an ornamental plant. The dense foliage of the tree prevents other native tree and grass species from growing. This leads to a shortage of food for wildlife, especially herbivores.
• Acacia mearnsii, commonly known as black wattle, is a rapid-growing leguminous (nitrogen-fixing) tree native to Australia. This species is frequently utilized for its tannin in commercial applications and serves as a significant source of firewood for local communities. However, its introduction poses a threat to native habitats as it competes with indigenous vegetation, displacing grass communities, diminishing native biodiversity, and exacerbating water loss from riparian zones.